Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 23:49

You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What do feminists mean when they say they want to ‘normalize’ menstruation and its discussion?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Is there a correlation between sweating during sleep and high body temperature and sugar levels?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.